Posted by Lou Pilder on August 16, 2006, at 14:04:00
In reply to Re: Is the 3 consecutive -post rule antisemitic?, posted by Jost on August 16, 2006, at 11:43:07
Jost,
In the aspect as to if the rule is a pretext for something else, we can look at one of the given reasons for the rule which says something like it would be easier for new members to post if the rule is incorporated in the FAQ.
Really? Let us look at this situation
A. If a new mwmber is not going to feel easy because he/she sees 4 consecutive posts, then how those posts happened would not be relevant, would it?
B. Since there are many exceptions made to the rule, then more than 3 consecutive posts can be seen, and the new poster ,unless they delved into trying to decifer the posts as either to the rule or not, IMO could be an unreasonable expectation for that new poster. How would they know how the 4 posts come to be seen? And if they knew that the exception, lets say of that a correction is not counted, could they not also think that the rule is a pretext for something else?
Lou
poster:Lou Pilder
thread:677002
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/admin/20060802/msgs/677123.html