Posted by Christ_empowered on July 2, 2022, at 22:32:36
In reply to Re: sedatives, not neuroleptics?, posted by undopaminergic on July 2, 2022, at 12:40:31
yeah...I skimmed some info The Google brought up about opioids in psychotic disorders. One was interesting...case report, shrink justified using oxycodone (is that OxyContin?) by pointing to the "pain" of Schizophrenia. OK. I mean...go for it, I just think the justification is a bit over the top. moving on...
it seems that the -sort- of sedation is important. benzodiazepines calm people down, but there's also the issue of rage reactions and disinhibition, so aggressive and violent behavior goes up (aggregate...obviously, not most people).
Opioids cause sedation mixed with some of the "de-activation" found with neuroleptics. Unlike neuroleptics, there's a euphoric element. The case study mentions occasional TD from morphine?
thanks.
poster:Christ_empowered
thread:1119997
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20220530/msgs/1120000.html