Posted by Christ_empowered on January 29, 2016, at 13:30:42
In reply to Schizophrenia, posted by Zyprexa on January 29, 2016, at 2:16:34
I think your shrink is just saying that the main, primary problem is Schizophrenia. Schizoaffective is much less common (or its supposed to be relatively rare, anyway), and it means that there's a psychotic disorder (primary problem) and also a pronounced mood disorder.
I think docs in general are using Schizoaffective a bit less, or at least that's what I've read. Over the long haul, lots of people who are diagnosed Schizoaffective end up with labels of either Schizophrenia or Bipolar I. Some will even end up with psychotic depression as their final diagnosis.
Even when the diagnosis is "just" Schizophrenia, antidepressants and sedatives are fairly common as part of long term treatment.
I think we have fairly similar problems. I'm diagnosed as Bipolar I because I'm moody and the mood stabilizers I take (lamictal+trileptal) work well for me. Of course...some Schizophrenic people respond well to Lamictal (they've used it w/ clozapine for treatment resistant Schizophrenia). I don't think Trileptal is as commonly used in Schizophrenia.
Blah blah blah...point is, the important thing is treatment, not labels. If your ADs are working, then you should probably continue taking them. ADs are commonly used in Schizophrenia, anyway.Why did your doc tell you this?
poster:Christ_empowered
thread:1085770
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20151225/msgs/1085785.html