Posted by jms600 on June 24, 2011, at 16:05:27
I was on a memantine drug trial a few years ago for an eye condition that I suffer from. While taking the drug I noticed that it had a real calming effect along with antidepressant properties. I know it wasn't placebo effect as I was told after the trial ended that I had been given the memantine.
I was also taking 60mg of Prozac at the time for depression, which wasn't helping on it's own.
I really did start to feel better on the drug. Okay, not 100%, but I certainly noticed an improvement.
Why did memantine help so much when most of the antidepressants, antipsychotics and anxiolytics have failed??
From the brief research I have done, memantine seems to have a four fold effect - antagonist of the glutamatergic NMDA receptors, antagonist of 5-HT3 receptors, antagonist of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, and agonist of D2 receptors.
Can anyone tell me which mode of the above actions is most likely responsible for it's calming and antidepressant effects??
poster:jms600
thread:989319
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20110619/msgs/989319.html