Posted by inanimate peanut on December 29, 2009, at 21:34:01
I've been wondering about this. When our meds stop working, why is that? Is our brain no longer producing a certain chemical-- did we use it up? For example, is the reuptake now completely blocked but we just don't have enough serotonin period? Or is the drug just no longer effective in its role as an antagonist/agonist at a certain cite- the chemical is there but the drug is no longer acting as it should?
I wonder this because the difference between Geodon (which worked for me for 1.5 months wonderfully) and Seroquel (which does nothing but put me to sleep) is Geodon's antagonism at the 5-HT-2A cite. This is also one of the targets of Remeron, which my doc wants me to try. So, if Geodon just burnt my brain out then the Remeron would be useless, but if Geodon stopped working because the drug just didn't act appropriately as an antagonist anymore, maybe the Remeron would come in and help. I should just stop thinking about it until I try it.
poster:inanimate peanut
thread:931510
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20091227/msgs/931510.html