Posted by psychobot5000 on December 14, 2006, at 16:50:04
In reply to Re: Why Are Dopamine Agonists Not More Popular? » psychobot5000, posted by Paulbwell on December 14, 2006, at 11:54:01
> -so i wonder in the PDR when, under ARs to Risperdal it states: "may antagonise effects of Dopamine agonists" they mean the above mentioned agents, AND stimulants?-likely.
>
> CheersI've wondered about those interactions too. ...Don't know enough about it to say what exactly they mean...but in my experience, antipsychotics didn't really seem to block the effect of low-dose stimulants. Of course it was different, taking them together. But Risperdal and most of its brothers (except Amisulpride and abilify?) I believe are all D2 antagonists, which seems as though it ought to put them in direct opposition to agonists like Pramipexole and bromocriptine. Perhaps that specific is all they mean.
poster:psychobot5000
thread:712252
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20061212/msgs/713696.html