Posted by clint878 on October 27, 2006, at 22:07:52
In reply to Re: Anti-psychiatry theory of iatrogenesis, posted by notfred on October 27, 2006, at 18:44:49
Well, it is true that the person is bipolar, in this case. But would that person have become bipolar if not treated with an antidepressant? Some people [psycheducation.org] don't think so; in fact, they think irreversible harm is done.
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> > It goes like this: someone becomes depressed (but not suicidal), and goes to see a psychiatrist after suffering for a few months. The psychiatrist prescribes an antidepressant. The patient takes the antidepressant, which causes mania.
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> This would indicate bipolar. Millions receive successful treatment for it. AP's are not first line meds for bipolar, though they are for manic phase (which can be deadly itself).
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> I think you are generalizing. People with decades of MI tend to have much more complex stories. Have you considered the outcome of not treating bipolar ? It has if not the higest rate of suicide amoung the MI's it not to the higest.
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poster:clint878
thread:698173
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20061020/msgs/698322.html