Posted by bassman on April 5, 2006, at 13:19:18
In reply to are generics weaker, posted by dondon on April 3, 2006, at 21:16:49
This is one of those over-intellectualized things. If a med has the same active molecule and achieves the same blood levels, then it has to have the same effects, right? So generics would always be the same as brand name, other than the fact that they can be off by 20% from the brand name in bioavailabilty. But the real-world data is different- a study I read yesterday where Xanax was changed to a generic without telling the folks on the study caused severe withdrawal-no placebo effect there; they didn't know. I think for psychoactive meds, you're always better off trying them initially as the brand name-then if they don't work, it's because they didn't work. After you have a med that works and want to try the generic, just pay attention to whether the med conitues to work in the same way-and if it doesn't-try going back to the brand name before giving up. That's my 2 cents.
Another way of thinking about it: take alcoholic beverages: same active ingredient, so if you any of them to the same blood level, they will affect you identically, right? (the "generics are equivalent" argument). Is that your experience, that wine, beer, whiskey, etc. affect you the same way?
poster:bassman
thread:628499
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20060403/msgs/629244.html