Posted by ed_uk on December 12, 2004, at 20:24:48
Does anyone know why the (discontinued) sedative methaqualone produces more euphoria than other sedatives/hypnotics/anxiolytics eg. barbiturates and benzodiazepines.
Ed.
PS. I have never taken Quaalude and I never will. I was just wondering whether it might have had a dopaminergic effect.
poster:ed_uk
thread:428549
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20041211/msgs/428549.html