Posted by pablo1 on November 16, 2004, at 17:39:10
In reply to Re: Zoloft for overfocused ADD, posted by banga on November 16, 2004, at 16:40:38
I don't recall where it was posted, one of these psych forums. Here's the additional info I have with that.
Intro:
Here is a table with the relative values of blockade of NA, 5HT and DA
the greater the value,
the greater the affinity for blocking the re-uptake site.
A followup question:
Where did you get these numbers?
The potency stats I have are from A Primer of Drug Action by Robert M.
Julien, M.D., Ph.D.These numbers do not make any sense to me. (First off, did I get the
right numbers under the right neurotransmitters, the table was a little
messed up on my newsreader??) Second, I assume these neurotransmitter
columns and the values under them are ment to represent inhibition of
reuptake of that neurotransmitter (and not inhibition of one of the many
receptor subtypes for each type of receptor). But what really has me
confused is what the values represent numerically. They are presumably
IC50 values (a measure of drug affinity) given in maybe micromolar
concentrations?? If they are, then the lower the numerical value the
greater affinity the drug has for blocking the reuptake of that
neurotransmitter. Sometimes IC50 values are given in -log units, and when
that happens the larger the number the higher the affinity. But that
doesn't seem to be the case here. I am confused.
poster:pablo1
thread:416315
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20041113/msgs/416809.html