Posted by zeugma on September 27, 2004, at 18:24:15
In reply to Re: Cymbalta and REM sleep - dreaming?, posted by SLS on September 26, 2004, at 20:13:20
> > the therapeutic effect of AD's is believed to be linked to their ability to inhibit REM sleep- or more exactly, to lengthen the amount of time it takes to enter REM after induction of sleep- known as 'REM latency.'
> >
>
> Yes.
>
> That's the reason I'm asking. I have been dreaming with Cymbalta. I am wondering if this is a sign that it will ultimately fail to work for me.
>
> I wish there were some way to measure REM latency without going to a sleep lab. I haven't a clue as to how this has been affected.
>
>
> - ScottScott,
I wouldn't necesaarily think that dreaming is a sign of returning depression. I had the first *normal* dreams in years (not hypnagogic hallucinations or other disruptions) on 150 mg Provigil plus 100 mg nortriptyline. I think this was because the Provigil, due to its effect on orexingenic transmission, somehow normalized my REM/NREM/wake cycle. This return coincided with improved mood and energy. Unfortunately, I had to discontinue the Provigil soon after, and the Ritalin I have replaced it with seems to have less effect on these underlying patterns. It could be that Cymbalta is having a normalizing effect on your circadian cycle. Of course this is pure speculation on my part :) Has your mood suffered since you noticed the dreams?
-z
poster:zeugma
thread:395372
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20040927/msgs/395979.html