Posted by Paul on March 12, 1999, at 16:55:35
I realize that this is only tangentially related to psychiatry, but I don't know of an equivalent forum for general medical questions, and I thought someone here might have an answer.
Why are hydrocodone and other oral opiod analgesics most often combined with acetaminophen for analgesia? I know there are exceptions, but this seems to be the most prevalent combination. If someone were suffering from severely painful joint pain, wouldn't a combination with other NSAID's like Daypro (oxaprozin) make more sense, attacking the pain itself more specifically, perhaps, while providing the benefits of opoid analgesia?
Any comments would be great appreciated, or if anyone knows of a Q/A forum like this for such questions, that would be fine.
Thanks
poster:Paul
thread:3641
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/19990301/msgs/3641.html