Posted by SLS on April 7, 2010, at 13:25:25
In reply to Lou's reply-duzitmaddr? » SLS, posted by Lou Pilder on April 7, 2010, at 9:25:23
> > Would the person's intent that gives another a mind-altering drug that has the potential to make the person want to kill themself, or be addicted to it, or cause them to be dehumanized, be what is needed to determine if sorcery is or is not practiced?
>
> I believe you will find the answer to this question in your own words as they are contained in a previous post: "If sorcery is the use of drugs to poison someone to make them die, or alter one's mind to make them controllable..."
>
> How do you define the term "mind-altering"? What must occur?Sorry. I guess you already answered that question as well. You suggest that it must render one controllable.
I doubt that we will resolve our differences on the issues surrounding the use of psychiatric medicines to treat mental illness and how the bible may be interpreted regarding this practice. I don't think the bible prohibits the use of Prozac to treat depressive disorders.
- Scott
poster:SLS
thread:940243
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/faith/20100403/msgs/942641.html