Posted by Lou Pilder on January 8, 2008, at 9:51:30
In reply to Re: overgeneralizing, posted by Dr. Bob on January 6, 2008, at 4:12:51
> > But can we take a closer look at who may be upset if we generalize about a blood pressure monitor?
> >
> > Seldom.
>
> When it's overgeneralizations about things, my concern isn't that people might be upset, but that people might make decisions based on what's posted.
>
> --
>
> > She is entitled to her experienced opinion.
> >
> > If I say Zyprexa increased my appetite, and therefore, I think it's sucky med...I'm generalizing my experience to all patients....but, that's OK?
> >
> > AbbieNormal
>
> Something like:
>
> > my experienced opinion is that the automatic ones more often than not are not acurate
>
> or:
>
> > I think the automatic ones are sucky
>
> I think would be fine.
>
> --
>
> > If I say that such and such a drug is often helpful, that's a generalisation, right?
> >
> > What's an overgeneralisation?
> >
> > Sigismund
>
> I think something like:
>
> > such and such a drug is always helpful
>
> BobMr. Hsiung,
You wrote as a reply to Sigismund's question as to what is an overgeneralization,[...I think something like: >such and such a drug is {always} helpful...]
The definition of{>over<generalization} is given by some English grammer authorities as:
[...sweeping generalizations that {oversimplify reality}...]. (citation 1B)
Your example used the word {always}which is consistant with English language authorities. Here are some other exmples given by an English langusge authority as being an overgeneralization as that are so general that they {oversimplify reality}
A. [... In times of crisis, every American supports his President...]
B. [...All birds can fly...]
The above examples can be paralled with Phillpa's statement in question to be examined as to if her statement is an overgeneralization according to the English language authority here in my citation (1B).
I am unsure as to if there is an authority that states that statements like the one in question by Phillipa,[...more often than not...]is considered to be an overgeneralizaion by a recognized authority. If you know of one, could you post a citation for such here?
The past practice here has many posts that use the phrase in question and I can find no instance here where the phrase {more often than not}, before Phillipa wrote it in her discussion with another poster about here experiance that she found as a nurse, is sanctioned. If there is one, could you post it here?
I ask:
C. How could a reasonable person know that they would be breaking a rule of yours here by writing {more often than not}, which is different from words like {always}, when there are many uses of the same phrase that were not sanctioned here and that a definition that English language authorities use, that an {overgeneralization} is a statement that is so general that they oversimplify reality that could have words in the statement like {all}, {every}, {always} and such?
If you could clarify this , then I could have the opportunity to respond accordingly.
Lou Pilder
citation 1B
http://ksuweb.kennesaw.edu/~shagin/logfal-analysis-analysis-overgen.htm
poster:Lou Pilder
thread:803345
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/admin/20071106/msgs/805054.html