Posted by Lou Pilder on December 29, 2007, at 8:01:16
In reply to Re: generalising vs over generalising » Sigismund, posted by Jamal Spelling on December 29, 2007, at 3:01:29
> > Can anyone explain the difference?
>
> Well, Sigismund, it is actually very simple. If I say something like "SSRIs cause apathy" then that is a generalization. On the other hand, if I say something like "anti-psychotics cause weight gain" then that is an over-generalization.
>
> See, it makes perfect sense!Friends,
It is written here,[...if I say...]
Here is a post where the member uses {more often than not}. It is in the sentance using,[...prescribed wrong drug...] as you can see in the offered link here.
As to determining what is or is not exaggerating, I ask:
A. would a reasonable person that reads {prescribed wrong drug...} think that that is an overgenerization?
B. If so, what could be the potential consequences to a reader here on a mental-health site as to if they are swayed one way or the other to take a prescribed psychotropic drug?
C. How does that statement compare with the statement by Phillipa?
Lou
here is the link to the post;
http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/admin/20010315/msgs/838.html
poster:Lou Pilder
thread:802861
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/admin/20071106/msgs/803120.html